In the account in John 10:31-39 the Jews were ready to stone Jesus, accusing him of blasphemy. Jesus answered them, "Is it not written in your Law, 'I have said you are gods'? If he called them 'gods' to whom the Word of God came--and the Scripture cannot be broken--what about the one whom the Father set apart as his very own and sent into the world?"
Jesus is referring to Psalm 82, particularly verse 6 (as the footnote says), where God refers to divinely appointed leaders (such as judges) as "gods." Jesus is saying (from the Concordia Self-Study Bible): "If there is any sense in which men can be spoken of as "gods," how much more may the term be used of him whom the Father set apart and sent!"
On a side note, did you notice how Jesus pointed out that "Scripture cannot be broken"? In his day the Scripture would have been the Old Testament, and Jesus here is testifying to its complete authority. How would New Testament Scripture be any less authoritative?
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