David's psalm included with today's reading, Psalm 18 (also found in 2 Samuel 22:1-51), has a section that gave me pause. David says, "The LORD has dealt with me according to my righteousness; according to the cleanness of my hands he has rewarded me. For I have kept the ways of the LORD; I have not done evil by turning from my God. All his laws are before me; I have not turned away from his decrees. I have been blameless before him and have kept myself from sin. The LORD has rewarded me according to my righteousness; according to the cleanness of my hands in his sight."
It sounds somewhat boastful, especially coming from a sinner before a holy God. What's interesting is the 2 Samuel People's Bible commentary explains this by pointing to several verses later: "As for God, his way is perfect; the word of the LORD is flawless." This commentary explains "Those who take refuge in him find God's righteousness their own. This is the joy that every Christian has in Jesus--his righteousness is ours by faith."
But the People's Bible on Psalms 1-72 explains David's claims differently. The author first points out how "David knew his sinfulness and confessed in often." He goes on, "David is contrasting his faith and godliness with the defiant ungodliness of the enemies who are trying to destroy him and to thwart God's plans."
We obviously know both points are correct. Of the two, however, the second explanation makes a little more sense to me if I try to think from David's perspective, not having the vantage point of the New Testament to see crystal clear how Jesus became our righteousness.
What do you think? Can you pick out anything from the Bible to this point that states outright that through faith in God he becomes our righteousness?
I should clarify that when I said "Can you pick out anything from the Bible to this point..." that I meant "up to this point." In other words, in our daily readings from January 1 through now (what David would have had for a Bible), is it clear that "God's righteousness becomes our own" so that that must be what David is referring to in his psalm?
ReplyDeleteThis comment has been removed by the author.
ReplyDeleteDavid knew that righteousness comes through faith and not through his own actions.
ReplyDeleteGenesis 6:9 states that Noah was a righteous man, blameless among the people of his time, and he walked faithfully with God. Righteousness and faithfullness are interconnected. The root word here being faith.
Gen 15:6 makes it clear that this righteousness come through faith. Abram believed the LORD, and he credited it to him as righteousness.
David knew that he couldn't do this on his own. In Psalm 19:13 he prays, "Keep your servant also from willful sins; may they not rule over me. Then I will be blameless, innocent of great transgression."
I noticed in today's reading Psalm 51 (a psalm of repentance after David's adultery) has lines that show David understood that God takes away his sin: "blot out my transgressions," "wash away all my iniquity and cleanse me from my sin," "wash me and I will be whiter than snow," "restore to me the joy of your salvation." In fact, the People's Bible says, "These verses are one of the clearest and most beautiful statements of the doctrine of forgiveness in the Old Testmaent."
ReplyDelete